I basically stopped there. The British did not partition Palestine. British policy, expressed in the MacDonald White Paper of 1939, not only limited Jewish immigration & essentially ban further land sales, it proposed a Palestinian state with a "participating" Jewish minority. That was Britain's policy until its final withdrawal in 1948.

It was the UN, SC Resolution 181 (which Britain abstained from) that partitioned Palestine. When UNSCOP investigators researched the best way to partition Palestine prior to the SC decision, Arabs refused to cooperate, meet with or communicate with them in any way.

Maybe you believe the UN had no right either to partition Palestine, but if not what was it in existence for? Clearly Jewish & Arab interests were too far apart for a unitary state, & just kicking the Jewish immigrants out ... to where? None of the major WWII would accept them (most survivors didn't want to go to Palestine in the first place; but it was the only place that would accept them).

One might argue many of these points, but you seem to be unaware of them, ignorant of the basic history of Jew & Arab in Palestine.

Israel has betrayed her principles in Gaza & is committing atrocities. The killing of food aid workers & worse still the pretext for doing so demonstrates that the IDF & its tactics must change, radically & soon, before the war widens. But pontificating w/o knowledge of the basic history is not illuminating at all.

Finally, you reference events going back 75 years, all of Israel's history, but for nearly the first two decades of its existence it had no control over Gaza or the West Bank. Jordan & Egypt controlled them. Why was no Palestinian state created then? Serious question.